--- title: "In 1787 what percentage of the us population vote?" description: "In 1787 what percentage of the us population vote?" author: "Vishal Kesarwani" published: 2018-10-01 updated: 2023-09-04 canonical: https://answers.mindstick.com/qa/50104/in-1787-what-percentage-of-the-us-population-vote category: "usa history" tags: ["usa"] reading_time: 2 minutes --- # In 1787 what percentage of the us population vote? ## Answers ### Answer by Kshitij Agrawal **In 1787**, the[**United States**](https://yourviews.mindstick.com/view/85180/future-of-united-states-trends-and-predictions) was operating under the **[Articles](https://www.mindstick.com/articles/12872/how-to-write-articles-of-50-and-more-a-day-quick-and-easy) of Confederation**, which did not establish a centralized federal [government](https://www.mindstick.com/news/1911/upi-transaction-would-cost-zero-service-charges-clarifies-government) with a presidential [election](https://www.mindstick.com/news/1823/kenya-had-ordered-facebook-to-tackle-its-hate-speech) or a uniform voting system as we know it today. Therefore, there was no national election or voting percentage related to the entire U.S. population in 1787. During this period, voting qualifications were largely determined by individual states, and they varied widely. Most states restricted the right to vote to white male [property](https://www.mindstick.com/blog/205/property-notification-in-c-sharp) owners, often with specific property and income requirements. This meant that only a relatively small portion of the population was eligible to vote in state and local elections. Some states did have relatively broad suffrage compared to others. For example, **Pennsylvania's 1776 constitution allowed all white male taxpayers, regardless of property ownership, to vote, making it one of the more inclusive states in terms of suffrage at the time.** It's essential to understand that the [concept](https://www.mindstick.com/blog/79/routing-concept-in-dot-net) of universal suffrage, where all adult citizens have the right to vote, was not established until later in U.S. history. The early years of the United States saw a gradual expansion of voting rights to include a broader [segment](https://www.mindstick.com/interview/1910/explain-the-difference-between-a-data-block-an-extent-and-a-segment) of the population, including non-property-owning white males, African Americans (although often with severe [restrictions](https://www.mindstick.com/news/2343/a-handbook-for-social-media-parental-restrictions)), and eventually women. The adoption of the U.S. Constitution in 1787 did not specify voting qualifications, leaving it to the states to determine who could vote. The establishment of federal voting standards, including the expansion of suffrage rights and [protection](https://www.mindstick.com/blog/301143/how-to-wear-knee-braces-for-the-best-protection) against voter [discrimination](https://www.mindstick.com/news/3667/twitter-failed-to-pay-millions-in-bonuses-violates-contract), would occur later with amendments like the **15th (1870), 19th (1920), and 26th (1971) Amendments to the U.S. Constitution.** In summary, there was no specific voting percentage related to the entire U.S. population in 1787 because voting qualifications were determined by individual states, and suffrage was limited, primarily to white male property owners. The concept of universal suffrage took years to evolve and became more inclusive over time through constitutional amendments and changes in state laws. --- Original Source: https://answers.mindstick.com/qa/50104/in-1787-what-percentage-of-the-us-population-vote Copyright © MindStick Software Pvt. Ltd. This Markdown version is provided for developers, AI systems, and offline reading.